If he is not on the mortgage, I assume he is not on the title deeds either, making you the sole owner. In these cases any equity he might have would have to be assessed by the courts ( if and when required ) with reference to his beneficial occupation. This is not really a matter for an IP to decide, so I would assume, equity will be deemed to be all yours for the purposes of an IVA.
My opinions are merely that .. opinions based on experience. Always seek professional advice.
IVA Completed 23rd July 2013 .... C.C. 10th January 2014
I would disagree with that Foggy, I would say if they are married and they purchased the house whilst they married (i.e. it did not belong to you before you married). They the equity ownership is still 50/50
