Posted: Thu Sep 13, 2007 8:30 pm
I wonder whether one of the experts might be able clarify something for me. You may remember I mentioned a few weeks ago about a Unilateral Notice being placed on my property by a creditor falling emerging post IVA.
I have now successfully re-mortgaged and the funds are sitting with my solicitor to offer a F&F ... and have accpeted that I will have to pay the amount of £12,000 fully in respect of the cahrage on my property ... otherwise the rest of the funds cannot be released. The court hearing for the charge is scheduled for 26th Sept, the charge will be paid in full by 17th at the latest.
This evening however I have noticed that the court hearing notification states;
"and the court orders that ... the debtor stands charged with payment of £12,327.69 together with any further interest becoming due and the costs of the application."
Does this mean that payment of the charge in the next few days will not actually clear the charge, that amounts (this would be in relation to ongoing lease payment liabilities) will automatically continue to be added to the charge? Or will having paid the charge the creditor have to re-apply for another charge?
Also, is a charge like a secured loan i.e that even in the event of bankruptcy I will still have to pay for the accumulating charges? i.e can bankruptcy override a charge on a property.
I am bit confused[V]
I have now successfully re-mortgaged and the funds are sitting with my solicitor to offer a F&F ... and have accpeted that I will have to pay the amount of £12,000 fully in respect of the cahrage on my property ... otherwise the rest of the funds cannot be released. The court hearing for the charge is scheduled for 26th Sept, the charge will be paid in full by 17th at the latest.
This evening however I have noticed that the court hearing notification states;
"and the court orders that ... the debtor stands charged with payment of £12,327.69 together with any further interest becoming due and the costs of the application."
Does this mean that payment of the charge in the next few days will not actually clear the charge, that amounts (this would be in relation to ongoing lease payment liabilities) will automatically continue to be added to the charge? Or will having paid the charge the creditor have to re-apply for another charge?
Also, is a charge like a secured loan i.e that even in the event of bankruptcy I will still have to pay for the accumulating charges? i.e can bankruptcy override a charge on a property.
I am bit confused[V]