Posted: Mon Sep 29, 2008 8:34 pm
I was self-employed for a year before entering into an IVA. I have now been informed by my accountant that I am entitled to a decent size rebate as the company I ran filed a loss for that year. The rebate is being made against taxable wages in a different year whilst I was employed.
I have been informed that this is classed as a windfall and must be paid in whole to my creditors, they won't even tell me how much it is!
I believe that the rebate was due before I started the IVA but Inland Revenue have caused delays.
My question is this, shoukld I have to pay all of the money into the IVA despite the loss occuring before the commencement date? Also, the rebate is money that I paid whilst I was employed before the IVA.
Seems very unfair, I fully understand the whole windfall thing but this should have been signed and sealed before the IVa was commenced.
Appreciate any advice.
Thank you in advance,
Justin
I have been informed that this is classed as a windfall and must be paid in whole to my creditors, they won't even tell me how much it is!
I believe that the rebate was due before I started the IVA but Inland Revenue have caused delays.
My question is this, shoukld I have to pay all of the money into the IVA despite the loss occuring before the commencement date? Also, the rebate is money that I paid whilst I was employed before the IVA.
Seems very unfair, I fully understand the whole windfall thing but this should have been signed and sealed before the IVa was commenced.
Appreciate any advice.
Thank you in advance,
Justin