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Posted: Wed Feb 13, 2008 12:14 pm
by 63k
Does the following statement mean I am to pay 50% of my overtime to the IVA or do i calculate the 10% first?
Also i realised I have just been paying the 50% in without contacting anyone. Is this going to be a problem?



The debtor shall report any overtime,bonus or commission, or similar to the supervisor if not indeed the original surplus calculation and where the sum exceeds 10% of the debtors normail take home pay. Disclosure to the supervisor will be made within 14 days of reciept and 50% of the amount (over and above the 10%)shall then be paid to the supervisor within 14 days of the disclosure

Posted: Wed Feb 13, 2008 12:32 pm
by cr15py
Hi 63k

You get your normal take home pay (i.e. £1,000) and add 10% on top (i.e. £100 = £1,100). Provided your take home pay is less than this, then there is no need to pay anything additional over.

However, if your take home pay was £1,170 for example, then you would pay 50% of the £70 you are over the £1,100 (i.e. £35).

This was covered in a post yesterday I believe.

Posted: Wed Feb 13, 2008 12:58 pm
by 63k
thats great thanks, I have been paying the 50% without the 10% leeway, and I also forgot to put in my child benefit to the basic pay...so this would be covered by the 10%. So in theory by the 1st year anniv I should be up to date with the payments.

Posted: Wed Feb 13, 2008 1:04 pm
by cat 1
I have been doing this too 63k but because I've overpaid I am claiming the money back from my IP as it should be mine by rights .Cat

Posted: Wed Feb 13, 2008 1:09 pm
by 63k
Can you not just deduct your overpayments from your next lot of overtime? Or was it over a long period?

Posted: Thu Feb 14, 2008 8:15 am
by cat 1
hi, yes I suppose we could, but he rarely does OT. This was the xmas lot and he proberbly won't do it again (because it's not available unfortunately) untill next xmas.Cat