I have been in a IVA for the past 18 months. I also have a joint mortgage with my wife, who is not in the IVA. However my wife's salary was taken into consideration when I first applied for the IVA. We are now looking to sell our home and move to rented accommodation.
My question is, will the whole of the profit from the sale of the property be taken into consideration for payment into my IVA? or can my wife legally claim half of the profit and the 50% of what is left (my half)then be considered for the IVA
Do you and your wife own the property in equal shares, or would either of you claim to have a larger share for instance if one of you funded the initial deposit solely?