Question: I have signed on with Money Debt and Credit for an IVA. It is costing me £221 a month, it is not taking into account bills above and beyond housing bills, nor does it give me any cash left over for clothing and/or bus fare, or any other items. I had included in my initial information that I have bills and debt that are not included in the IVA or basic housing/food payments. These were not taken into consideration. Does this invalidate the IVA?
At the 54th month it is expected of me to re-mortgage my house to be able to pay off the full amount that is due, not the rest of the agreement, but the rest of the original debt. This will cost me tens of thousands of pounds in higher mortgage payments for the property. Can I then back charge/sue for this?
Also, as both they stated and your web site stated, the whole point is not to go bankrupt, but to pay back what I can, so I was told that I would save over 50% of my debt, but instead with the forced re-mortgage will cost me not only 100% of the original debt but several times more in higher interest payments, can they do this?
What happens if I cancel the IVA?
The company is demanding that I and the co-owner of the house sign an RX-1 form, even though the co-owner is in no way liable for my personal debt, can they do this?
The company sent me the RX-1 form following a letter which I signed with modifications to the first agreement. However, I did not notice that, in that letter, one of the clauses related to the obligation of re mortgaging the house (which I had told the company several times before I did not want to involve). Because the property is co-owned, shouldn’t the co-owner have to agree with this as well? Nothing was sent to the co-owner in this respect.
If the co-owner of the house is involved, should this person also have been included in the process, since anything that happens directly affects them?
Related to the above questions, what can I do to “shield” the co-owner of the house? Can I, at this stage, transfer ownership/gift or change the form of ownership of the house?
There were many items that were sold to me over the phone, and have later turned out to be false or opposite, can this be considered a breach of contract on their part? Or just part of the sales gimmick.