Catallus
I feel that the modfication being referred to here is the oldstyle KPMG - 4th year revaluation, two offers of remortgage, debtor to choose best offer, release 100% of equity - but as you say it is difficult to advise without the full wording.
If this is the case, I would suggest compliance with the mod - ie revaluation (can be done easily), two offers of re-mortgage (easier still - both will say no remortgage), therefore best offer is zero, therefore debtor has fully complied.
Can't help but think that there are some bully boy tactics going on here, from an obvious volume processor who have their own mortage arm - talk about lack of independence! Now I wonder who that could be!!!
Regards, Melanie Giles, Insolvency Practitioner for over 20 years.
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