Proposal

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cr15py

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Post by cr15py » Mon Nov 19, 2007 3:04 pm
I have received my proposal from my IP (i.e. the one that goes to the court) - is this what the creditors vote on? i.e. whatever is in that is what they go with unless they vote for modifications which I accept?

For example, if there was no mention of 50% of overtime going to the creditors within the proposal, then I wouldn't be bound to pay over 50% of any overtime?

I'm just trying to understand the system a little bit better!! [:)]
Chris
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Oliver

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Post by Oliver » Mon Nov 19, 2007 3:10 pm
If the agreement doesn't include a clause that stipulates that you will not have to pay 50% of your overtime your IVA it is possible that you could keep this. The best way to be sure is to ask your IP.

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cr15py

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Post by cr15py » Mon Nov 19, 2007 3:12 pm
So, the proposal that is submitted to the courts is what the creditors vote on? There's isn't a separate agreement or anything?
Chris
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iva experts

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Post by iva experts » Mon Nov 19, 2007 3:19 pm
The best way to find out whether this is correct about Re: overtime is to call your I.P and confirm that the proposal you have in front of you is correct.

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cr15py

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Post by cr15py » Mon Nov 19, 2007 3:31 pm
OK thanks - it isn't actually a specific question, as overtime isn't really an option where I work - was more a general query, as I have heard a couple of different questions on here and was just wondering how the system worked.
Chris
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Adam Davies

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Post by Adam Davies » Mon Nov 19, 2007 4:05 pm
Hi
I think all proposals are sent in with no reference to overtime.The IP will wait for the creditors to add the overtime modification and I think this is why we see some IVAs without the 50% overtime clause.
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cr15py

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Post by cr15py » Mon Nov 19, 2007 4:59 pm
Thanks!! :):)
Chris
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catullus

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Post by catullus » Mon Nov 19, 2007 7:34 pm
Andy,

This is partly what the IVA protocol is all about.

Amongst other matters they are working to a standard proposal that will include a provision on overtime.

In the meantime, TIX announced that they would require certain standard clauses in "TIX compliant" proposals and the inference was given, back in September, that if you didn't comply they might vote against.

It hasn't happened yet, as far as I am aware,but we took the policy decision to include it as a standard clause in our proposal anyway, which I think that most IP's did.

There may be a few practices that don't include the provision for overtime in their proposal but I suspect theere won't be many.
 
 

MelanieGiles

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Post by MelanieGiles » Mon Nov 19, 2007 10:08 pm
I agree - we have opted to follow the TIX compliant model, just to avoid having to keep typing out modifications after modification each time we do a Chairman's Report. But this in only done where TIX have an influenging vote - so we now have two types of proposal - TIX and non-TIX!

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Adam Davies

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Post by Adam Davies » Tue Nov 20, 2007 11:14 am
Hi Mel
I noticed that the protocol is suggesting an affodability of 50% of disposible income for equity releases,whereas TIX is 60% at present.
Will TIX reduce their figure or are you going to have
"protocol compliant IVAs" and "TIX compliant IVAs ?"
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MelanieGiles

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Post by MelanieGiles » Tue Nov 20, 2007 10:34 pm
I think that there will be a global agreement between TIX clients and the others. Personally I do not feel that the 60% is necessarily unfair, and as I have said before I feel that TIX's protocol on the matrimonial home is clear and helpful to the debtor.

Regards, Melanie Giles, Insolvency Practitioner for over 20 years.

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Regards, Melanie Giles, Insolvency Practitioner
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