We split up just before our 6th wedding anniversary and no, we didn't own any other property. We couldn't have bought the house without her inheritance. I didn't have any capital of my own. We met abroad and I'm not from the UK.

She paid 25% of the asking price plus all legal fees. I guess there's about 60K equity in the house. It's undervalue because it needs quite a lot of work doing to it.

PLEASE NOTE: omission from above post. Although she had the deposit, the lender wouldn't allow her to take the mortgage on by herself, as at the time she didn't earn enough and was on a fixed term contract. The irony is that she secured a permanent position and increased salary less than six months ...

We purchased the house in 2002. The only reason my name was added to the mortgage was because despite the fact that my wife had the deposit (it was part of her inheritance, which is why I am loathe to pursue this) I was unemployed for well over 12 months during the time I lived at the house. When I ...

There is neither a matrimonial consent order (whatever that is) nor a deed of separation, and my name is no longer on the deeds. My wife has since remortgaged the property in her name. Can you clarify further please? Thanks

Hi, I have personal debts amounting to £22,000+. I separated from my wife in Sept 2006 and signed the over to her last year. This was in recognition of the fact that she used part of her inheritance to pay the deposit and that she has paid the mortgage by herself since June 2006. The debts I have ru...