Hi everyone, I need a little help, I have a had a few payday loans 3 to 4 years ago of which I have not heard anything from and they wasnt paid because I got myself in a mess. The payday originally defaulted or agreement broken in November 2009, now this has been passed on to a DCA and they have defaulted me with a date of 1/12/12 which is over 3 years since I broke the original agreement. All previous debts I had which got defaulted years on from original agreement being broken had the default date representing when the agreement was originally broken.
So my question really is can this company put this default date which in my opinion is 3 years to late.
I don't have anything in place as the as the agreement was broke at a time when my circumstances were not great 3-4 years ago. And I have never received any letters just the odd harassment text.
Should this company have given me a defaul notice letter first giving me 28 days to pay the debt off because that never happened and the odd text from a company I had never heard of and didn't say what the text was in relation to.
If you have any answers it would be very much appreciated.
Hi Sedge -- the creditor can put a default on your account any time the account is in default -- some, I have heard, (thankfully rarely) even put one on every month, counting each missed payment as a default
My opinions are merely that .. opinions based on experience. Always seek professional advice.
IVA Completed 23rd July 2013 .... C.C. 10th January 2014
Hi and welcome. Have you checked the credit reference agencies, most probably listed there and then you can contact them and appoint an IP or debt management manager to work with you in getting yourself straight. x
IVA final payment left the bank on the 26th January 2013...looking forward to a debt free future.
I know now who they are and can pay the full balance but I feel they have not given me the chance to pay this before marking my credit file with a default.
I'm told they should send me a letter first giving me 28 data to pay.
